Is there some other definition of the word 'participation'?

[Daniel]

When St. Paul uses words such as 'participation' and 'partake' (see 1 Corinthians 10 for some good examples), he doesn't seem to be saying the same thing that Plato is saying. Is St. Paul just being poetic, or is he working from some other theory/definition of 'participation'?

Also, it seems that Catholic theologians say that fallen man 'participates' in Adam, that redeemed man 'participates' in Christ, and that Christ needed to be a man in order to redeem man. But this doesn't make any sense if we go with Plato's theory of 'participation'. My only guess is that Catholic theologians are using a different definition or theory?

[Gardener]

You gave example of Paul using it but not Plato.

Koinonia is the Greek:
https://biblehub.com/greek/2842.htm

[Gardener]

You gave example of Paul using it but not Plato.

Koinonia is the Greek:
https://biblehub.com/greek/2842.htm

Daniel, can you give an example of Plato's usage?

Does Aristotle ever address the same concept or use the term insofar as you are seeing in Plato?

[Daniel]

I'd have to look.

Wikipedia says that it's "represented in Greek by more than one word" ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_forms ).

I can't recall where he used it, exactly. My guess is that it's probably at least in the Timaeus and the Republic. (I'm mostly familiar with Plato's theory of forms through teachers and other sources commenting on Plato, not through Plato himself.)