Supplied jurisdiction

[angelcookie]

I know this has probably been discussed so feel free to offer links. I just wanted to ask how can supplied jurisdiction not be fallacy? I think I understand the definition- yet I am still stumped on the actual term. Who pulled this out of where and is it really justified or just an appearance? I just don't get it. I don't see this relatively new loophole as prudent or virtuous even though the appearance for doing so is of good.

[GloriaPatri]

Supplied jurisdiction, as a concept, has been around forever. For example, an excommunicated priest has no jurisdiction and thus normally would not be able to hear a valid confession. But in the case where a Catholic is near death and needs to make a last confession, the excommunicated priest is supplied the jurisdiction to hear his or her confession by the Church itself. It shouldn't worry or you, or make you feel like this is something made up. It's been long established before VII.

[INPEFESS]

Indeed, the suppletory principle has its origins in Roman law and has been in use since before Christ. Although the Church used it, it wasn't formally codified in the Church's ecclesiastical law until the 1917 Code of Canon Law.

[angelcookie]

Thank you.